OK, so dv/dt has been redefined specifically for the special relativity argument--
No, it hasn't. Because we're talking about Special Relativity, the frame of reference is extremely important. The acceleration is constant at 9.81ms^-2 from a non-inertial frame of reference (in this case, the only frame of reference that's easily observable in the real world, e.g. an observer who had just jumped up). The argument of accelerating to the speed of light, however, only becomes at all interpretable in an inertial frame of reference - hence the need to rephrase the equations.
This isn't a simple rephrasing. If the acceleration changes with speed (as the equation given for dv/dt suggests) it is not constant, regardless of reference frame. There is no Lorentz transform in the calculations done on the Wiki page, we are not talking about multiple frames of reference.
2. I don't think this is even the correct equation for calculating relativistic acceleration, but my knowledge of special relativity is fairly elementary so I won't argue that point. However, based on my calculations (using separation of variables), the solution given for this differential equation isn't even correct! You can check it yourself by taking the derivative of the "solution"-- it will not give you the original differential equation!
Could you show your workings?
If v is indeed the solution of dv/dt, then taking the derivative of v should give us the original differential equation. However, when taking the derivative of the given v, dv/dt=g/(ɣ^3*t^3). Uh-oh, a t^-3 has appeared!
3. Here is the conclusion that is arrived at based on these erroneous calculations: "As you can see, it is impossible for dark energy to accelerate the Earth past the speed of light." This statement actually disproves UA-- if the earth's velocity cannot exceed the speed of light, how can it continue accelerating at a constant rate forever? Based on the solution given, as t approaches infinity and v approaches c, it follows that dv/dt must approach 0, meaning that the earth's acceleration is decreasing.
This is simply a restatement of your introduction and of point 1. You have no familiarity with Special Relativity, specifically Lorentz transformations, and you're easily confused by multiple frames of reference. You are not arguing against the Flat Earth Theory here, you are arguing against simple physics, which you should have a good grasp of by the time you finished high school.
Do you even math bro? The statement I'm making here is purely mathematical, and it is only the logical progression of the mathematical conclusion made in the Wiki article. Even if I didn't know anything about special relativity it would not affect this point. The author says that as t-->∞, v-->c. I'm saying that based on this statement that the author has made, it follows that dv/dt must approach 0 as t-->∞.
You have no familiarity with Special Relativity, specifically Lorentz transformations, and you're easily confused by multiple frames of reference. You are not arguing against the Flat Earth Theory here, you are arguing against simple physics, which you should have a good grasp of by the time you finished high school.
Your failure here basically boils down to the fact that UA would indeed be impossible under classical mechanics, which is clearly your default state of mind when thinking about mechanics. However, classical mechanics is just a simplification of reality which produces reasonably accurate results as long as we're not dealing with (for example) things that approach the speed of light.
Tsk, tsk, so many assumptions about my background. Please point out which part of my argument hinges on a classical assumption.
Edit: Actually, I see what you're saying in the context of the article, but I'm still not convinced that its interpretation of proper acceleration is correct. Gotta do some reading