Wait, so is it lower than the flu, higher, or the same? Because now I'm confused by your argument. You said it has a lower fatality rate than the flu, which I provided two sources saying it is higher. You then proceed to claim that its higher only for old people. So which is it? Is it lower than the flu or higher?
Dave, imagine I have 9 glasses of water with 1 oz of water in them. Now I have one with 5 oz of water in it. That means, the average amount of water I have between all these glasses is 1.1 oz. Now imagine I have a second set of glasses, nine of them have 2 oz of water in them and then one more has 3 oz. The average is 2.1 oz. You're arguing that because the first set has a glass with 5 oz of water in it, the average of it must be higher than the set in which all of the glasses have a lower amount. In other words, just because the fatality rate of old people is higher for covid-19 doesn't make it worse than the flu for everyone, just old people.
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Yes, I know that. The mortality rate for elderly and those with compromised immune systems is like 15% where as most others are like .2%-1%.
But first off: Why is this not a big deal?
Secondly, what about the apparent higher transmission rate, longer incubation period, and potentially longer perod you are contageous before showing symptoms? I mean, the CDC and most countries are going to reasonable lengths to stop the spread. Are you really arguing that because the mortality rate is similar (aside from the elderly) to the flu that everyone is essentially panicing over nothing?