[Action80]

Finite is adjacent to infinite.

What?  Not to take this topic off course too much, but no, this is not true at all.  There is no point between a given point of origin and infinity where you can say "One step closer to the origin and you are a finite distance away, but one step further and you are an infinite distance away".  Nor could you find a scale between two given points where you divide the scale one more time and now you can say there are an infinite number of positions between those two points on this scale.  Infinity is not a place, or a quantity, it is the conceptualization of the uncountably large.  It does not exist any where near the finite.

Finite is adjacent to infinite.

Wow.    You need to consult a dictionary.

Yeah, you can measure something, and then?

You cannot.

They are adjacent.

[AATW]

They are adjacent.

You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means.
They're opposites.

[BillO]

Yeah, you can measure something, and then?

You cannot.

They are adjacent.

Can you provide a single reference for this?

[Action80]

They are adjacent.

You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means.
They're opposites.

Adjacent most certainly does not mean "opposites."

It means next to each other.

Yeah, you can measure something, and then?

You cannot.

They are adjacent.

Can you provide a single reference for this?

Yes.

The reference is this.

There is a point in time when things are no longer able to be measured.

It is then you label that point as infinite.

[markjo]

There is a point in time when things are no longer able to be measured.

It is then you label that point as infinite.

Why would you no longer be able to measure something?  Do you eventually run out of numbers?

[AATW]

Adjacent most certainly does not mean "opposites."

It means next to each other.

Correct.
Adjacent means “next to each other”.
But finite and infinite are not next to each other, they are opposites. Hence the prefix “in”, which means “not”. See?

[Action80]

There is a point in time when things are no longer able to be measured.

It is then you label that point as infinite.

Why would you no longer be able to measure something?  Do you eventually run out of numbers?

You believe all things are measurable, evidently?

[Action80]

Adjacent most certainly does not mean "opposites."

It means next to each other.

Correct.
Adjacent means “next to each other”.
But finite and infinite are not next to each other, they are opposites. Hence the prefix “in”, which means “not”. See?

So, you want to engage in the process proposed by Copernicus.

Well, I understand the need for some to hold fast to the idea that nothing could possibly be immeasurable.

[BillO]

Adjacent most certainly does not mean "opposites."

It means next to each other.

Correct.
Adjacent means “next to each other”.
But finite and infinite are not next to each other, they are opposites. Hence the prefix “in”, which means “not”. See?

So, you want to engage in the process proposed by Copernicus.

Well, I understand the need for some to hold fast to the idea that nothing could possibly be immeasurable.

Talk about marching out the straw men.

So, you made the bold (and quite ridiculous) claim that finite is adjacent to infinite.  Instead of the strawman, can you provide us with the mathematical proof of this?  Or even a mathematical discussion around it other than you just saying it's so?  There must be one around and you must have seen it in order to make your claim.  I (and others here) would love to see it.

[markjo]

There is a point in time when things are no longer able to be measured.

It is then you label that point as infinite.

Why would you no longer be able to measure something?  Do you eventually run out of numbers?

You believe all things are measurable, evidently?

Not sure where you got that impression.  I'm just asking, at what point does something become too big (or small) to measure?  Even then, "too big to measure" and "infinite" are not necessarily the same thing.

[AATW]

There is a point in time when things are no longer able to be measured.

It is then you label that point as infinite.

No there isn't. There isn't a point.
Numbers don't just run out. It doesn't go 1 - 2 - 3 .... 999,999 - 1,000,000 ... oh we've run out of numbers...infinity!

Infinity is a concept. Infinity - 1 is still infinity. Infinity divided by 2 is still infinity. There are as many even numbers as there are numbers.
Infinity is counter-intuitive and there is no "point" at which the finite becomes infinite.

Infinite simply means "not finite". Y'know, like incompetent or incapable...

[Action80]

There is a point in time when things are no longer able to be measured.

It is then you label that point as infinite.

No there isn't. There isn't a point.
Numbers don't just run out. It doesn't go 1 - 2 - 3 .... 999,999 - 1,000,000 ... oh we've run out of numbers...infinity!

Yeah..you are just flat out wrong.

Worse yet, you know what you are writing is wrong and wrote it anyway.

Infinity is a concept.

It is certainly more than a concept.

A purely vertical line has infinite slope. Any vertical line can be found adjacent to multitudes of other lines of various slope anywhere. anyplace, or anytime.

It really would be best for you to stop posting in threads having anything to do with math.

[AATW]

A purely vertical line has infinite slope.

Incorrect. It's undefined.

https://tutorme.com/blog/post/what-is-the-slope-of-a-vertical-line/

Because you can't divide by 0.

[BillO]

Numbers don't just run out. It doesn't go 1 - 2 - 3 .... 999,999 - 1,000,000 ... oh we've run out of numbers...infinity!

Yeah..you are just flat out wrong.

Ahhh.. that would be you.

No matter which number set you use - the natural, whole, integer, rational, real and complex number sets are all closed under addition.  That means AATW is right, you are wrong.

That also means you can take any number you like in any of those sets, and add any other number you like and the answer will still be a finite number in that set.  That also means there is no point where it becomes infinity.

Why are you arguing this position?  This is grade 9 or 10 math.  Go look it up or provide a proof for your assertion.

It really would be best for you to stop posting in threads having anything to do with math.

Fucking priceless!!!!!

[Action80]

A purely vertical line has infinite slope.

Incorrect. It's undefined.

https://tutorme.com/blog/post/what-is-the-slope-of-a-vertical-line/

Because you can't divide by 0.

Infinity is "undefined." And the symbol given is: ∞

Infinity.

[BillO]

Infinity is "undefined." And the symbol given is: ∞

Infinity.

Infinity may have no set value, but it is defined:https://www.britannica.com/science/infinity-mathematics

[Action80]

Infinity is "undefined." And the symbol given is: ∞

Infinity.

Infinity may have no set value, but it is defined:https://www.britannica.com/science/infinity-mathematics

"Mathematical infinities
The ancient Greeks expressed infinity by the word apeiron, which had connotations of being unbounded, indefinite, undefined, and formless."

[BillO]

The ancient Greeks expressed infinity by the word apeiron, which had connotations of being unbounded, indefinite, undefined, and formless."

The ancient Greeks, eh?  Nice cherry.  You should have read a bit further.  I think you'd have found mathematics has come a long way since then.  Like I said, infinity is well defined, but not as a value.  We (us that know some math anyway) know exactly what is meant by infinity.  Where is the proof the finite is adjacent to infinite?  Still waiting...

BTW, here is proof that the sum of two real numbers (no matter what they are) is a real number (the set of real numbers is closed under addition). :https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Real_Addition_is_Closed  So good luck finding a disproof.

[Action80]

The ancient Greeks expressed infinity by the word apeiron, which had connotations of being unbounded, indefinite, undefined, and formless."

The ancient Greeks, eh?  Nice cherry.  You should have read a bit further.  I think you'd have found mathematics has come a long way since then.  Like I said, infinity is well defined, but not as a value.  We (us that know some math anyway) know exactly what is meant by infinity.  Where is the proof the finite is adjacent to infinite?  Still waiting...

BTW, here is proof that the sum of two real numbers (no matter what they are) is a real number (the set of real numbers is closed under addition). :https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Real_Addition_is_Closed  So good luck finding a disproof.

Nice cherry?

It was quoted directly from your own source.

Funny your source offers absolutely nothing in regard to counter that infinity is, in fact, undefined.

As for your real numbers...

Irrelevant to the discussion.

Toodle pip.

[BillO]

The ancient Greeks expressed infinity by the word apeiron, which had connotations of being unbounded, indefinite, undefined, and formless."

The ancient Greeks, eh?  Nice cherry.  You should have read a bit further.  I think you'd have found mathematics has come a long way since then.  Like I said, infinity is well defined, but not as a value.  We (us that know some math anyway) know exactly what is meant by infinity.  Where is the proof the finite is adjacent to infinite?  Still waiting...

BTW, here is proof that the sum of two real numbers (no matter what they are) is a real number (the set of real numbers is closed under addition). :https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Real_Addition_is_Closed  So good luck finding a disproof.

Nice cherry?

It was quoted directly from your own source.

Funny your source offers absolutely nothing in regard to counter that infinity is, in fact, undefined.

As for your real numbers...

Irrelevant to the discussion.

Toodle pip.

Yeah, they are 100% relevant, you are just not able to understand that.

Sad.

I'll leave you to your strange universe.  I've tried as hard as I want to on this.  I've given you everything you need.  Maybe go back to school?

Until next time..