[inquisitive]

The celestial bodies, including the stars, cause variations in the tides. I believe our FAQ explains this as well, which you have been linked to already in a previous thread.

Ridiculous Copernican nonsense.

Galileo explained this using 'sloshing'. Inspired by the behaviour of water when boats come to a halt, Galileo Galilei concluded that the ebb and flow of the tides resulted, similarly, from the seas and oceans carrying energy back and forth across their surface.

Ah! So there doesn't seem to be a consensus on the matter...

About Galileo's idea, he also thought it would explain tides because the earth is actually moving around the sun. It actually was an argument for the earth's movement around the sun (although he was wrong about that, at least for those who have a reality-based science).
So my question is: does the earth move in flat-earth theory? (except for the upwards acceleration, which is perpendicular to earth's plane so it wouldn't affect the movement of seas and oceans). Because if it doesn't move, shouldn't the initial movement be attenuated during the 4 billion years of earth's existence? or maybe the earth isn't 4 billion years old in your theory? And what was the initial movement anyway?

The Earth moves. It is accelerating upward at 1g.

What is 1g in m/s/s? Why does it vary?